Party A asserts that a binding agreement exists, reached between the parties without participation of counsel, resolving a divorce and all issues (alimony, custody CS, etc)
Party B asserts it's unconscionable and unenforcable for a variety of reasons (e.g., $800 per month alimony for 2 years on 27 year marriage with Party A earning $100K and Party B a never employed stay-at-home parent [who loses residential custody under agreement], 75/25% distribution of assets in Party A's favor, no CSG, etc).
Both parties were represented, but there was no communication between parties and counsel as to terms. As soon as Party B's attorney was made aware of "agreement", he moved to vacate it and have it declared null / void / unconscionable. Party B says it was reached without any understand of rights / obligations under the law.
Court orders a plenary hearing as to circumstances surrounding the "agreement" and whether it's unconscionable.
At the hearing, who is the burden on? Wife to show an enforceable agreement exists, or Husband seeking to affirm there isn't? Anyone know a case on this?
Thanks,
<x-sigsep>
Please confirm that you received this email and referenced attachments (if any).
- Dave
David Perry Davis, Esq.
----------------------------------------------------
www.FamilyLawNJ.pro
----------------------------------------------------
112 West Franklin Avenue
Pennington, NJ 08534
Voice: 609-737-2222
Fax: 609-737-3222
</x-sigsep>