Husband and Wife got divorced in 2008. They jointly owned a Shore House that they agreed to list for sale and split the net sales proceeds, evenly. Post-divorce, Husband, who used the Shore House exclusively, didn't pursue sale diligently, while wife, who never used it, didn't have the funds to file an application to compel him to get Shore House sold. Today, the Shore House is still not sold and parties are negotiating Husband buying out Wife's interest in same. If Husband has used it 100% of the time since the time of divorce, while paying all carrying charges, and Wife hasn't used it at all since then, should Husband be entitled to any sort of credit for the mortgage pay down, even though this was never contemplated in their MSA? Does anyone know of any case law regarding this issue? Thanks in advance.
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Michael Miller Esq.
Chatham NJ
(973)966-6644
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