Parties were married 18 years and the first 17 years were spent in the husband's premarital home. Eight months before surprising husband with divorce complaint, wife induces husband to sell first home and buy a house with the $500,000 proceeds from premarital home (yes, they had put on second floor to premarital home but he used premarital 401k for same) to buy home in joint names. He was shocked by divorce complaint. Is there fraud in the inducement when such activity occurs so close to the filing of divorce?. Thank you!
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Christine Moriarty Brophy Esq
Christine Moriarty Brophy, PC
(201)785-1658
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