Listmates,
Sorry for the length but there needs to be a bit of background to gain an understanding. "Briefly", my client was incarcerated for several years, and during that time his wife divorced him. Unbeknownst to him his wife applied to social services for benefits, and at the same time waived her rights to collect child support so that when my client was released they could collect any due funds directly from my client for the services the board rendered to the ex-wife.
My client, once released, went to court and submitted a notarized Consent Order wherein ex-wife acknowledged receipt of all child support arrears along with an additional $10,000.00 payment to her for extra funds client believed she was entitled to because he went away. Judge vacated the arrears and credited his CS account the $10,000 not knowing this amount was due to the Board as his ex never told him that she received the benefits and the Board never gave him notice of them either.
Shortly after this entry of the Consent Order, the Board realized that the ex-wife had not informed him of his obligation and that she had committed fraud as she started to get child support again while also receiving benefits. However, the Board decided that, despite my client's payment to his ex, and the judges' signature on their Consent Order that they would levy his accounts in and attempt to recoup their funds from my client. After some mild litigation it was determined that the should go after the ex in order to recoup their money.
The problem that I am facing is that on the current Motion for Reconsideration it seems that despite same "just not feeling right" the Motion for Reconsideration is mainly contesting the fact that they never needed to notice him. I understand the necessity for privacy to an extent, but it baffles me that an obligor could never be told about an obligation, his wife could hide the receipt of same, the judge could overlook the welfare number on top of his order, and that after all of this my client is the one who should just pay because "he was a criminal once". I obviously know that my client can sue his ex, but after his past, he did not want to be the one who had to file against her.
Any thoughts regarding this matter, or case law regarding same would be greatly appreciated. And as always, thank you in advance.
Best,
Eric
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Eric Hannum Esq.
Manasquan NJ
(732)370-9596
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